if death is the result of sin, and hair and fingernails and toenails grow as a result of cells dying, did adam and eve have hair or fingernails and toenails before the fall of man?
That's an interesting question, Matt. I have a question too: if sex is meant mainly for procreation, and to desire someone is to have 'lusty' feelings for them, then was there any sexual relations before the fall of man?
are lust and desire the same thing? is it not possible to desire someone without being married to them and not sin? isn't desire part of why we are attracted to people?
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that has got to be the strangest question i've heard this week. and i'm also assuming that it is a rhetorical question.
Posted by: ~robin~![[TypeKey Profile Page]](http://www.mennoboy.com/bigboots/nav-commenters.gif)
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October 21, 2005 8:19 PM
That's an interesting question, Matt. I have a question too: if sex is meant mainly for procreation, and to desire someone is to have 'lusty' feelings for them, then was there any sexual relations before the fall of man?
Posted by: Crystal![[TypeKey Profile Page]](http://www.mennoboy.com/bigboots/nav-commenters.gif)
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October 21, 2005 11:04 PM
i don't know, i would assume not. God knew what was coming and planned ahead, that's the best i can figure.
Posted by: eustace (matt w)![[TypeKey Profile Page]](http://www.mennoboy.com/bigboots/nav-commenters.gif)
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October 22, 2005 6:25 AM
are lust and desire the same thing? is it not possible to desire someone without being married to them and not sin? isn't desire part of why we are attracted to people?
Posted by: eustace (matt w)![[TypeKey Profile Page]](http://www.mennoboy.com/bigboots/nav-commenters.gif)
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October 22, 2005 2:40 PM